Philip
John tells us that Andrew was one of the two of John's disciples who follow Jesus in the beginning of John's Story 3. We aren't told who was the second of these two followers of the Lamb of God. The Lamb of God, of course, would have been the risen Christ if this indeed was a post-resurrections Story.
Along this same line, what do you think might be the purpose of the writer of John's gospel as he presents us the following from John's Story 3 (1:35-51):
Now Philip was from Bethsaida (This happens to be the first verse in the "un-shaded" story when diagramed in its literary form), and
from John's Story 21 (12:21-50) we find the following verses:
Now among those who went up to worship at the festival were some Greeks.
They came to Philip, who was from Bethsaida in Galilee. (This happens to be in the "shaded" story.)
The following verse tells us that Philip doesn't immediately take the Greeks to Jesus. Instead, Philip goes to Andrew and then the two of them go to Jesus. Jesus replies to them, and we aren't sure if them includes the Greeks or not. Jesus' reply is that the hour has come for him to be glorified.
It is obvious to me that John wants John's Story 3 to be a foundation for what is happening in John's Story 21.
The writer of John wants to bring our attention to this second event where the Greek-speaking people were seeking Jesus. Yes, Jesus was also the hope of the Greeks.
I propose that the fact about Philip being from Bethsaida was done intentionally so that both the shaded and unshaded stories would both include this statement. (If you don't know what this means...look at the 150 parables website.)
Was Philip the second of the two of John's disciples that followed Jesus at the beginning of John's gospel? If so, why is this important? Why does Philip seek Andrew to go with him to tell Jesus that the Greeks want to talk to him?
The writer of John's gospel wants us to be aware of something. If someone comes to this blog with a suggestion, it will be welcomed.
<< Home